1. Suppose that, before the experiment, a scientist had predicted that Variety X mushrooms would have a greater concentration of Mn2+ than Variety Y mushrooms. Are the results of the experiment consistent with this prediction?
A. No; the concentration of Mn2+ was 30.5 mg/kg for Variety X and 43.5 mg/kg for Variety Y.
B. No; the concentration of Mn2+ was 37.5 mg/kg for Variety X and 96.5 mg/kg for Variety Y.
C. Yes; the concentration of Mn2+ was 43.5 mg/kg for Variety X and 30.5 mg/kg for Variety Y.
D. Yes; the concentration of Mn2+ was 96.5 mg/kg for Variety X and 37.5 mg/kg for Variety Y.
2. Which of the following expressions best shows the direction of the flow of soil gas through the apparatus shown in Figure 2?
A. Teflon tube → pump → Rn detector
B. Teflon tube → Rn detector → pump
C. Pump → Rn detector → Teflon tube
D. Pump → Teflon tube → Rn detector
3. According to Figure 3, the average Rn concentration at the site having the second-largest vertical displacement in Figure 1 in December 2008 was approximately:
A. 04 kBq/m3
B. 08 kBq/m3
C. 12 kBq/m3
D. 16 kBq/m3
4. Based on Figure 3, the average Rn concentration increased between June 2008 and December 2008 at how many of the sites?
F. 3
G. 4
H. 5
J. 6
5. Which of the following statements best summarizes the December 2008 data for Sites 4−8?
A. increased only
B. decreased only
C. increased, then decreased
D. decreased, then increased
6. Based on the description of the sites, what was the minimum possible distance along the fault line between Site 1 and Site 5?
F. 025 km
G. 075 km
H. 100 km
J. 175 km
7. According to Figure 3, the average Rn concentration in June 2008 at Site 3 was closest in value to the average Rn concentration in July 2009 at which of the following sites?
A. Site 1
B. Site 4
C. Site 5
D. Site 8
8. Based on Trials 1−4, as v increased, h:
F. increased only
G. decreased only
H. increased and then decreased
J. decreased and then increased
9. What was the absolute value of the difference between the projectile’s speed in Trial 1 and the projectile’s speed in Trial 10?
A. 02 m/s
B. 06 m/s
C. 08 m/s
D. 10 m/s
10. Suppose that a trial had been performed in which M was 1.00 kg and m was 0.060 kg. If the resulting value of h were 0.020 m, v would most likely have been closest to which of the following?
F. 06 m/s
G. 10 m/s
H. 16 m/s
J. 20 m/s
11. What was the independent variable in Trials 9−12?
A. M
B. m
C. h
D. v
12. For which trial was GPE greatest?
F. Trial 4
G. Trial 6
H. Trial 8
J. Trial 12
13. For which of the following moons is the semimajor axis closest to 1 billion meters?
F. Enceladus
G. Dione
H. Titan
J. Iapetus
14. Based on Figures 1 and 3, the majority of the moons in Groups 1−4 have orbits that are which shape: circular or elliptical?
A. Circular, because most of the plotted moons have an orbit for which e = 0.
B. Circular, because most of the plotted moons have an orbit for which 0 < e < 1.
C. Elliptical, because most of the plotted moons have an orbit for which e = 0.
D. Elliptical, because most of the plotted moons have an orbit for which 0 < e < 1.
15. There is a Group 4 moon with an orbital energy more similar to those of Group 1 moons than to those of the other Group 4 moons. What is the approximate orbital energy of this moon?
F. 1026 J
G. 1028 J
H. 1030 J
J. 1032 J
16. Based on Figures 2 and 3, for which of the ranges listed below are there no moons plotted?
A. II only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III
17. Based on Figures 2 and 4, each moon that has an inclination angle greater than +30° has an orbital energy that is within which of the following ranges of values?
F. 1022 J to 1024 J
G. 1022 J to 1026 J
H. 1024 J to 1026 J
J. 1024 J to 1028 J
18. Suppose a new moon is discovered in orbit around Saturn and it is classified as a Group 3 moon. Based on Figure 3, which of the following pairs of values for a and e, respectively, most likely corresponds to the orbit of this moon?
A. 11 × 10^9 0.15
B. 11 × 10^9 0.45
C. 17 × 10^9 0.15
D. 17 × 10^9 0.45
19. Which of the following statements was most likely the hypothesis for Study 2?
F. Males choose mates on the basis of the peak frequency of the potential mates’ calls.
G. Males choose mates on the basis of the loudness of the potential mates’ calls.
H. Females choose mates on the basis of the peak frequency of the potential mates’ calls.
J. Females choose mates on the basis of the loudness of the potential mates’ calls.
20. Which of the following statements regarding peak frequency and reproductive fitness is consistent with the results of Study 2? Male R. mehelyi that emit calls with a peak frequency of:
A. 104 kHz are more likely to attract more females and have lower reproductive fitness than are male R. mehelyi that emit calls with a peak frequency of 112 kHz.
B. 104 kHz are more likely to attract more females and have higher reproductive fitness than are male R. mehelyi that emit calls with a peak frequency of 112 kHz.
C. 112 kHz are more likely to attract more females and have lower reproductive fitness than are male R. mehelyi that emit calls with a peak frequency of 104 kHz.
D. 112 kHz are more likely to attract more females and have higher reproductive fitness than are male R. mehelyi that emit calls with a peak frequency of 104 kHz.
21. Consider the design of Study 2. Which of the following procedures was most likely done to eliminate preference based on the direction the call came from?
F. The calls were played at different volumes.
G. The calls were randomly assigned to the speakers.
H. Only female R. mehelyi calls were played.
J. Only male R. mehelyi calls were played.
22. Based on Table 1, the total number of bat landings in the compartment that played a call with a peak frequency of 104 kHz was approximately how many times as great as the total number of bat landings in the compartment that played a call with a peak frequency of 112 kHz?
A. _1_ 4
B. _1_ 2
C. 2
D. 4
23. Based on the description and the results of Study 2, which of the following expressions shows how to calculate the number of times a female R. mehelyi did NOT land in one of the compartments?
F. (2 × 61) + (225 + 460)
G. (2 × 61) − (225 + 460)
H. (12 × 61) + (225 + 460)
J. (12 × 61) − (225 + 460)
24. In Study 1, which of the following procedures was likely performed to ensure that a given peak frequency measurement was not influenced by the Doppler effect?
A. Measuring the mass of each bat
B. Collecting bats from a single cave
C. Placing the bat equidistant from 2 speakers
D. Recording bats while they were stationary
25. For humans, the audible range of sound is 20−20,000 Hertz (Hz). Based on Figure 1, would a human likely be able to hear a call emitted at a peak frequency from a 24 g R. mehelyi?
F. Yes; 107 kHz is in the audible range of sound for humans.
G. Yes; 109 kHz is in the audible range of sound for humans.
H. No; 107 kHz is not in the audible range of sound for humans.
J. No; 109 kHz is not in the audible range of sound for humans.